I wasn't offering a prescription with my comment, just observing that the evidence suggests the gender wage gap is a Real Thing. But:
Are we supposed to just unfairly give people the same salaries when one worked part time instead for 4 years?
Let's dig into that a bit.
Suppose Bob and Agatha are both working full-time at the same company as, for the sake of example, sales engineers, and they're both making $100K. Agatha goes on maternity leave, and afterward the company agrees to keep her on as a part-time sales engineer, working 25 hours a week at $62.5K.
If, after four years, she and Bob both apply for full-time senior sales positions, is it "unfair" for Agatha to be offered the same salary as Bob?
Are we supposed to just unfairly give people the same salaries when one worked part time instead for 4 years?
Let's dig into that a bit.
Suppose Bob and Agatha are both working full-time at the same company as, for the sake of example, sales engineers, and they're both making $100K. Agatha goes on maternity leave, and afterward the company agrees to keep her on as a part-time sales engineer, working 25 hours a week at $62.5K.
If, after four years, she and Bob both apply for full-time senior sales positions, is it "unfair" for Agatha to be offered the same salary as Bob?